AQA Further Paper 1 2022 June — Question 6 8 marks

Exam BoardAQA
ModuleFurther Paper 1 (Further Paper 1)
Year2022
SessionJune
Marks8
PaperDownload PDF ↗
Mark schemeDownload PDF ↗
TopicHyperbolic functions
TypeProve inverse hyperbolic logarithmic form
DifficultyChallenging +1.3 Part (a) is a standard Further Maths proof requiring manipulation of the definition of tanh^{-1}x using exponentials and logarithmsβ€”bookwork with routine algebraic steps. Part (b) requires recognizing the identity sechΒ²x = 1 - tanhΒ²x to form a quadratic in tanh x, then applying the logarithmic form from part (a). While this involves multiple techniques and careful algebra, it follows a clear pathway once the substitution is identified. The 8 total marks and multi-step nature place it above average difficulty, but it remains a standard Further Maths exercise without requiring novel insight.
Spec4.07a Hyperbolic definitions: sinh, cosh, tanh as exponentials4.07f Inverse hyperbolic: logarithmic forms

  1. Given that \(|x| < 1\), prove that $$\tanh^{-1}x = \frac{1}{2}\ln\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)$$ [4 marks]
  2. Solve the equation $$20\operatorname{sech}^2x - 11\tanh x = 16$$ Give your answer in logarithmic form. [4 marks]

Question 6:

AnswerMarks Guidance
6(a)Recalls exponential definition of
tanh1.2 B1
βˆ’1
Then 𝑦𝑦 = tanh π‘₯π‘₯
π‘₯π‘₯ = tanh𝑦𝑦
𝑦𝑦 βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
e βˆ’e
π‘₯π‘₯ = 𝑦𝑦 βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
𝑦𝑦 βˆ’e𝑦𝑦 +e𝑦𝑦 βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
π‘₯π‘₯(e +e ) = e βˆ’e
𝑦𝑦 βˆ’ 𝑦𝑦
e (π‘₯π‘₯βˆ’1)+e (π‘₯π‘₯+1)= 0
2𝑦𝑦
e (π‘₯π‘₯βˆ’1)+(π‘₯π‘₯+1) = 0
2𝑦𝑦 1+π‘₯π‘₯
e =
1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯
1+π‘₯π‘₯
2𝑦𝑦 = lnοΏ½ aοΏ½s required.
1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯
βˆ’1 1 1+π‘₯π‘₯
Multiplies by their denominator
AnswerMarks Guidance
and multiplies by (or )3.1a M1
𝑦𝑦 π‘₯π‘₯
e e
Obtains
or 2𝑦𝑦 1+π‘₯π‘₯
e =1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯
Obtains
AnswerMarks Guidance
OE 2π‘₯π‘₯ 1+𝑦𝑦1.1b A1
e = 1βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
Completes a rigorous argument
AnswerMarks Guidance
to show the required result2.1 R1
Total4 tanh π‘₯π‘₯ = 2lnοΏ½1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯οΏ½
QMarking instructions AO

AnswerMarks
6(b)Uses appropriate hyperbolic
identity (condone sign errors) to
obtain an equation in one
hyperbolic function
or
substitutes exponential form,
condone error in sum/difference
AnswerMarks Guidance
of exponential terms1.1a M1
20(1βˆ’tanh π‘₯π‘₯)βˆ’11tanhπ‘₯π‘₯ = 1 6
2
0 = 20tanh π‘₯π‘₯+11tanhπ‘₯π‘₯βˆ’4
(5tanhπ‘₯π‘₯+4)(4tanhπ‘₯π‘₯βˆ’1)= 0
or
4 1
tanhπ‘₯π‘₯ = βˆ’5 4
βˆ’1 4 1 1
π‘₯π‘₯ = tanh οΏ½βˆ’5οΏ½= 2lnοΏ½9οΏ½
or
βˆ’1 1 1 5
π‘₯π‘₯ = tanh οΏ½4οΏ½=2lnοΏ½3οΏ½
Solves their quadratic equation
to obtain two solutions in tanh x
or
quadratic in to obtain two
solutions 2π‘₯π‘₯
or e
quartic in to obtain at least
AnswerMarks Guidance
two solutionπ‘₯π‘₯s1.1a M1
e
Obtains and OE
4 1
or
tanhπ‘₯π‘₯ = βˆ’5 4
Obtains and OE
or 2π‘₯π‘₯ 5 1
e = 3 9
AnswerMarks Guidance
Obtains and OE1.1b A1
π‘₯π‘₯ √15 1
e = 3 3
Obtains correct solutions
(any correct exact log form)
AnswerMarks Guidance
ISW1.1b A1
Total4
Question total8
QMarking instructions AO
Question 6:
--- 6(a) ---
6(a) | Recalls exponential definition of
tanh | 1.2 | B1 | Let
βˆ’1
Then 𝑦𝑦 = tanh π‘₯π‘₯
π‘₯π‘₯ = tanh𝑦𝑦
𝑦𝑦 βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
e βˆ’e
π‘₯π‘₯ = 𝑦𝑦 βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
𝑦𝑦 βˆ’e𝑦𝑦 +e𝑦𝑦 βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
π‘₯π‘₯(e +e ) = e βˆ’e
𝑦𝑦 βˆ’ 𝑦𝑦
e (π‘₯π‘₯βˆ’1)+e (π‘₯π‘₯+1)= 0
2𝑦𝑦
e (π‘₯π‘₯βˆ’1)+(π‘₯π‘₯+1) = 0
2𝑦𝑦 1+π‘₯π‘₯
e =
1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯
1+π‘₯π‘₯
2𝑦𝑦 = lnοΏ½ aοΏ½s required.
1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯
βˆ’1 1 1+π‘₯π‘₯
Multiplies by their denominator
and multiplies by (or ) | 3.1a | M1
𝑦𝑦 π‘₯π‘₯
e e
Obtains
or 2𝑦𝑦 1+π‘₯π‘₯
e =1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯
Obtains
OE 2π‘₯π‘₯ 1+𝑦𝑦 | 1.1b | A1
e = 1βˆ’π‘¦π‘¦
Completes a rigorous argument
to show the required result | 2.1 | R1
Total | 4 | tanh π‘₯π‘₯ = 2lnοΏ½1βˆ’π‘₯π‘₯οΏ½
Q | Marking instructions | AO | Marks | Typical solution
--- 6(b) ---
6(b) | Uses appropriate hyperbolic
identity (condone sign errors) to
obtain an equation in one
hyperbolic function
or
substitutes exponential form,
condone error in sum/difference
of exponential terms | 1.1a | M1 | 2
20(1βˆ’tanh π‘₯π‘₯)βˆ’11tanhπ‘₯π‘₯ = 1 6
2
0 = 20tanh π‘₯π‘₯+11tanhπ‘₯π‘₯βˆ’4
(5tanhπ‘₯π‘₯+4)(4tanhπ‘₯π‘₯βˆ’1)= 0
or
4 1
tanhπ‘₯π‘₯ = βˆ’5 4
βˆ’1 4 1 1
π‘₯π‘₯ = tanh οΏ½βˆ’5οΏ½= 2lnοΏ½9οΏ½
or
βˆ’1 1 1 5
π‘₯π‘₯ = tanh οΏ½4οΏ½=2lnοΏ½3οΏ½
Solves their quadratic equation
to obtain two solutions in tanh x
or
quadratic in to obtain two
solutions 2π‘₯π‘₯
or e
quartic in to obtain at least
two solutionπ‘₯π‘₯s | 1.1a | M1
e
Obtains and OE
4 1
or
tanhπ‘₯π‘₯ = βˆ’5 4
Obtains and OE
or 2π‘₯π‘₯ 5 1
e = 3 9
Obtains and OE | 1.1b | A1
π‘₯π‘₯ √15 1
e = 3 3
Obtains correct solutions
(any correct exact log form)
ISW | 1.1b | A1
Total | 4
Question total | 8
Q | Marking instructions | AO | Marks | Typical solution
\begin{enumerate}[label=(\alph*)]
\item Given that $|x| < 1$, prove that
$$\tanh^{-1}x = \frac{1}{2}\ln\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)$$ [4 marks]

\item Solve the equation
$$20\operatorname{sech}^2x - 11\tanh x = 16$$
Give your answer in logarithmic form. [4 marks]
\end{enumerate}

\hfill \mbox{\textit{AQA Further Paper 1 2022 Q6 [8]}}