AQA FP2 2007 January — Question 5 14 marks

Exam BoardAQA
ModuleFP2 (Further Pure Mathematics 2)
Year2007
SessionJanuary
Marks14
PaperDownload PDF ↗
Mark schemeDownload PDF ↗
TopicComplex numbers 2
TypeDe Moivre to derive trigonometric identities
DifficultyStandard +0.8 This is a multi-part Further Maths question requiring proof by induction of De Moivre's theorem, then applying it through several connected steps involving complex number manipulation and algebraic identities. While each individual part uses standard techniques, the question requires sustained reasoning across four parts with the final part demanding insight to connect previous results. The induction proof and the 'hence' chain elevate this above routine exercises, but it remains a structured exam question with clear signposting.
Spec4.02n Euler's formula: e^(i*theta) = cos(theta) + i*sin(theta)4.02q De Moivre's theorem: multiple angle formulae

5
  1. Prove by induction that, if \(n\) is a positive integer, $$( \cos \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin \theta ) ^ { n } = \cos n \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin n \theta$$
  2. Find the value of \(\left( \cos \frac { \pi } { 6 } + \mathrm { i } \sin \frac { \pi } { 6 } \right) ^ { 6 }\).
  3. Show that $$( \cos \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin \theta ) ( 1 + \cos \theta - \mathrm { i } \sin \theta ) = 1 + \cos \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin \theta$$
  4. Hence show that $$\left( 1 + \cos \frac { \pi } { 6 } + i \sin \frac { \pi } { 6 } \right) ^ { 6 } + \left( 1 + \cos \frac { \pi } { 6 } - i \sin \frac { \pi } { 6 } \right) ^ { 6 } = 0$$

5
\begin{enumerate}[label=(\alph*)]
\item Prove by induction that, if $n$ is a positive integer,

$$( \cos \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin \theta ) ^ { n } = \cos n \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin n \theta$$
\item Find the value of $\left( \cos \frac { \pi } { 6 } + \mathrm { i } \sin \frac { \pi } { 6 } \right) ^ { 6 }$.
\item Show that

$$( \cos \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin \theta ) ( 1 + \cos \theta - \mathrm { i } \sin \theta ) = 1 + \cos \theta + \mathrm { i } \sin \theta$$
\item Hence show that

$$\left( 1 + \cos \frac { \pi } { 6 } + i \sin \frac { \pi } { 6 } \right) ^ { 6 } + \left( 1 + \cos \frac { \pi } { 6 } - i \sin \frac { \pi } { 6 } \right) ^ { 6 } = 0$$
\end{enumerate}

\hfill \mbox{\textit{AQA FP2 2007 Q5 [14]}}