CAIE FP1 2014 June — Question 9 10 marks

Exam BoardCAIE
ModuleFP1 (Further Pure Mathematics 1)
Year2014
SessionJune
Marks10
PaperDownload PDF ↗
Mark schemeDownload PDF ↗
TopicReduction Formulae
TypeMixed trigonometric products
DifficultyChallenging +1.2 This is a standard reduction formula question requiring substitution (straightforward u-substitution), integration by parts to derive the recurrence relation, and application to find a specific value. While it involves multiple steps and is from Further Maths, the techniques are routine and well-practiced at this level, making it moderately above average difficulty but not requiring novel insight.
Spec1.08h Integration by substitution8.06a Reduction formulae: establish, use, and evaluate recursively

9 Using the substitution \(u = \cos \theta\), or any other method, find \(\int \sin \theta \cos ^ { 2 } \theta d \theta\). It is given that \(I _ { n } = \int _ { 0 } ^ { \frac { 1 } { 2 } \pi } \sin ^ { n } \theta \cos ^ { 2 } \theta \mathrm {~d} \theta\), for \(n \geqslant 0\). Show that, for \(n \geqslant 2\), $$I _ { n } = \frac { n - 1 } { n + 2 } I _ { n - 2 }$$ Hence find the exact value of \(\int _ { 0 } ^ { \frac { 1 } { 2 } \pi } \sin ^ { 4 } \theta \cos ^ { 2 } \theta d \theta\).

Question 9:
AnswerMarks Guidance
Working/AnswerMark Guidance
\(\int\sin\theta\cos^2\theta\,d\theta = -\frac{1}{3}\cos^3\theta + c\)B1 Ignore omission of \(c\)
\(I_n = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\sin^n\theta\cos^2\theta\,d\theta = \left[-\sin^{n-1}\theta\cdot\frac{\cos^3\theta}{3}\right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} + \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(n-1)\sin^{n-2}\theta\cos\theta\cdot\frac{\cos^3\theta}{3}\,d\theta\)M1A1
\(= 0 + \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{(n-1)}{3}\sin^{n-2}\theta\cos^2\theta(1-\sin^2\theta)\,d\theta\)M1A1 N.B. Limits not required for both M marks; parts can use \(u=\cos x\), \(\frac{dv}{dx}=\sin^n x\cos x\)
\(= \frac{(n-1)}{3}(I_{n-2} - I_n)\)
\(\Rightarrow I_n = \frac{(n-1)}{(n+2)}I_{n-2}\)A1 AG
Total[5]
\(I_0 = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos^2\theta\,d\theta = \frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(\cos 2\theta+1)\,d\theta = \frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{\sin 2\theta}{2}+\theta\right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = \frac{\pi}{4}\)M1A1 Or \(I_2\)
\(\therefore I_4 = \frac{3}{6}\times\frac{1}{4}\times\frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{\pi}{32}\)M1A1 CAO
Total[4]
# Question 9:

| Working/Answer | Mark | Guidance |
|---|---|---|
| $\int\sin\theta\cos^2\theta\,d\theta = -\frac{1}{3}\cos^3\theta + c$ | B1 | Ignore omission of $c$ |
| $I_n = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\sin^n\theta\cos^2\theta\,d\theta = \left[-\sin^{n-1}\theta\cdot\frac{\cos^3\theta}{3}\right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} + \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(n-1)\sin^{n-2}\theta\cos\theta\cdot\frac{\cos^3\theta}{3}\,d\theta$ | M1A1 | |
| $= 0 + \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\frac{(n-1)}{3}\sin^{n-2}\theta\cos^2\theta(1-\sin^2\theta)\,d\theta$ | M1A1 | N.B. Limits not required for both M marks; parts can use $u=\cos x$, $\frac{dv}{dx}=\sin^n x\cos x$ |
| $= \frac{(n-1)}{3}(I_{n-2} - I_n)$ | | |
| $\Rightarrow I_n = \frac{(n-1)}{(n+2)}I_{n-2}$ | A1 | AG |
| Total | [5] | |
| $I_0 = \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}\cos^2\theta\,d\theta = \frac{1}{2}\int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}}(\cos 2\theta+1)\,d\theta = \frac{1}{2}\left[\frac{\sin 2\theta}{2}+\theta\right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} = \frac{\pi}{4}$ | M1A1 | Or $I_2$ |
| $\therefore I_4 = \frac{3}{6}\times\frac{1}{4}\times\frac{\pi}{4} = \frac{\pi}{32}$ | M1A1 | CAO |
| Total | [4] | |

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9 Using the substitution $u = \cos \theta$, or any other method, find $\int \sin \theta \cos ^ { 2 } \theta d \theta$.

It is given that $I _ { n } = \int _ { 0 } ^ { \frac { 1 } { 2 } \pi } \sin ^ { n } \theta \cos ^ { 2 } \theta \mathrm {~d} \theta$, for $n \geqslant 0$. Show that, for $n \geqslant 2$,

$$I _ { n } = \frac { n - 1 } { n + 2 } I _ { n - 2 }$$

Hence find the exact value of $\int _ { 0 } ^ { \frac { 1 } { 2 } \pi } \sin ^ { 4 } \theta \cos ^ { 2 } \theta d \theta$.

\hfill \mbox{\textit{CAIE FP1 2014 Q9 [10]}}