AQA FP2 2016 June — Question 7 6 marks

Exam BoardAQA
ModuleFP2 (Further Pure Mathematics 2)
Year2016
SessionJune
Marks6
PaperDownload PDF ↗
Mark schemeDownload PDF ↗
TopicProof
TypeAlgebraic inequality proof
DifficultyStandard +0.3 This is Bernoulli's inequality, a standard proof by induction exercise commonly found in FP1/FP2 textbooks. While it requires proper induction technique (base case, inductive hypothesis, inductive step), the algebra is straightforward and the result is well-known, making it slightly easier than average for an A-level question but typical for Further Maths.
Spec4.01a Mathematical induction: construct proofs

Given that \(p \geq -1\), prove by induction that, for all integers \(n \geq 1\), $$(1 + p)^n \geq 1 + np$$ [6 marks]

AnswerMarks Guidance
\(n = 1\): LHS \(= 1 + p\); RHS \(= 1 + p\)B1 Therefore result is true when \(n = 1\)
Assume inequality is true for \(n = k\) (*)
Multiply both sides by \(1 + p\)E1 and stating \(1 + p \ldots 0\) before multiplying both sides by \(1+p\) or justifying why inequality remains \(\ldots\)
\((1+p)^{k+1} \ldots (1+kp)(1+p)\)
Inequality only valid since multiplication by positive number because \(1 + p \ldots 0\)
Considering \((1+kp)(1+p)\)M1 and attempt to multiply out
RHS \(= 1 + kp + p + kp^2\)A1
RHS \(\ldots 1 + kp + p\) must have \(\ldots\) correct algebra and inequalities throughout
\(\Rightarrow (1+p)^{k+1} \ldots 1 + (k+1)p\)A1
Hence inequality is true when \(n = k + 1\) ()E1 6 marks
but true for \(n = 1\) so true for \(n = 2, 3, \ldots\) by induction (***)
(or true for all integers \(n \ldots 1\) (***)\()\)
Total: 6 marks
Notes:
- Statement "true for \(n = 1\) may appear in conclusion such as "true for \(n \ldots 1\)" allowing B1 to be earned
- May write \((1+p)^{k+1} = (1+p)^k(1+p)\ldots(1+kp)(1+p)\) with justification for \(\ldots\) for first E1
- May earn final E1 even if first E1 has not been earned, provided other 4 marks are scored
- If final statement is "true for all \(n \ldots 1\)" do not award final E1
$n = 1$: LHS $= 1 + p$; RHS $= 1 + p$ | B1 | Therefore result is true when $n = 1$

**Assume** inequality is true for $n = k$ (*) | |

**Multiply both sides by** $1 + p$ | E1 | and stating $1 + p \ldots 0$ before multiplying both sides by $1+p$ or justifying why inequality remains $\ldots$

$(1+p)^{k+1} \ldots (1+kp)(1+p)$ | |

**Inequality only valid since multiplication by positive number because** $1 + p \ldots 0$ | |

**Considering** $(1+kp)(1+p)$ | M1 | and attempt to multiply out

RHS $= 1 + kp + p + kp^2$ | A1 |

RHS $\ldots 1 + kp + p$ | | must have $\ldots$ correct algebra and inequalities throughout

$\Rightarrow (1+p)^{k+1} \ldots 1 + (k+1)p$ | A1 |

**Hence inequality is true when** $n = k + 1$ (**) | E1 | **6 marks** | must have (*), (**) and (***) and must have earned previous B1, M1, A1, A1 marks

**but true for** $n = 1$ **so true for** $n = 2, 3, \ldots$ **by induction** (***) | |

**(or true for all integers** $n \ldots 1$ (***)$)$ | |

**Total: 6 marks**

**Notes:**
- Statement "true for $n = 1$ may appear in conclusion such as "true for $n \ldots 1$" allowing B1 to be earned
- May write $(1+p)^{k+1} = (1+p)^k(1+p)\ldots(1+kp)(1+p)$ with justification for $\ldots$ for first E1
- May earn final E1 even if first E1 has not been earned, provided other **4 marks** are scored
- If **final** statement is "true for all $n \ldots 1$" do not award final E1

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Given that $p \geq -1$, prove by induction that, for all integers $n \geq 1$,
$$(1 + p)^n \geq 1 + np$$ [6 marks]

\hfill \mbox{\textit{AQA FP2 2016 Q7 [6]}}